Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 09:02
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Supreme Court lets DOGE access Social Security data of millions of Americans - The Washington Post
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Could This Diet Be the Key to Preventing Alzheimer's and Dementia? - bestlifeonline.com
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.